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OFFICE OF THE CONTROLLER GENERAL OF PATENTS, DESIGNS
AND TRADE MARKS, DEPARTMENT FOR PROMOTION OF
INDUSTRY AND INTERNAL TRADE, MINISTRY OF COMMERCE
AND INDUSTRY,
GOVERNMENT OF INDIA
RECRUITMENT NOTIFICATION
2023
FOR THE POSTS OF
EXAMINER OF PATENTS & DESIGNS
GROUP-A (GAZETTED)
CONDUCTED BY:
Quality Council of India
(Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India)
2nd Floor, Institution of Engineers Building, Bahadur Shah Zafar Marg,
New Delhi – 110003
A. IMPORTANT
1. GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
All candidates are mandatorily required to read this Information Bulletin in its entirety. The candidates are required to ensure that they fulfill all conditions as contained in this Information Bulletin. Due to the large number of candidates that are expected to apply for appearing in this examination, electronic systems will be used to analyse the information submitted by candidates. Accordingly, the admission to various stages
of the examination will be purely provisional and would be subject to physical verification of documents. Mere issue of e-Admit Card to the candidate will not imply that a candidature has been finally cleared by the Competent Authority. The process of verification of documents and various conditions prescribed in this document will be conducted after the declaration of final list of qualified candidates.
2. HOW TO APPLY
Candidates are required to apply online by using the website www.qcin.org. No other mode of application will be accepted.
3. Examination Fees
There will be an examination fee of ₹1000/- (Rupees One Thousand only) for candidates belonging to General category and OBC category. For candidates belonging to SC /ST category, PWD/ Differently abled (PH) category and women applicants (from all categories) and any other person, the examination fee shall be ₹500/- (Rupees Five Hundred only).
The crucial date for claim of any kind of benefit, that is, reservation, fee concession, age-relaxation, etc., shall be last date of submission of application.
The Competent Authority reserves the right to debar any candidate for any malpractice, including for a fraudulent claim of any kind of benefit / relaxation / concession.
5. VACANCIES
CGPDTM intends to recruit Examiners of Patents and Designs, General Central Service, Group ‘A’ Gazetted (Non-Ministerial) in Level 10 in Pay Matrix (₹ 56,100 – 1,77,500) plus applicable allowances, as admissible, in the Government of India. The vacancies are tentative, which may be decreased or increased depending upon the actual requirement at the time of final appointment.
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B. IMPORTANT DATES AT A GLANCE (TENTATIVE)
| S. No. | Activity | Date |
|---|---|---|
| 1. | Online application process starts | 14th July 2023 |
| 2. | Online application process concludes | 4th August 2023 |
| 3. | Issuance of e-Admit Card for Preliminary Examination |
14th August 2023 |
| 4. | Preliminary Examination | 3rd September 2023 |
| 5. | Declaration of result of Preliminary Examination | 13th September 2023 |
| 6. | Issuance of e-Admit Card for Mains Examination | 18th September 2023 |
| 7. | Mains Examination | 1st October 2023 |
| 8. | Declaration of result of Mains Examination | 16th October 2023Mains Examination |
| 9. | Issuance of e-Admit Card for Interview | 22nd October 2023 |
| 10. | Interview | 11th and 12th November 2023 |
| 11. | Declaration of final list of qualified candidates | 17th November 2023 |
C. OFFICE OF CGPDTM
The Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (CGPDTM) administers the Industrial Property laws related to Patents (Patents Act 1970), Designs (Designs Act, 2000), Trade Marks (Trade Marks Act, 1999) and Geographical Indications (Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act 1999) in the country. The CGPDTM is also the Registrar of Copyrights and Registrar of Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout-Design. The headquarter of the Office of Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks is located at Mumbai. The Rajiv Gandhi National Institute of Intellectual Property Management (RGNIIPM) and Patent Information System (PIS), Nagpur also function under the superintendence and administrative control of the CGPDTM.
The Patent Office is located at four places, that is, Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata and Mumbai. The Trade Marks Registry is located at five places, that is, Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai and Ahmedabad. The Designs Wing is located at Kolkata and the Geographical Indications Registry is located at Chennai. The Copyright Office and the Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout-Design Registry are located at Delhi. The RGNIIPM and PIS are located at Nagpur.
D. EXAMINER OF PATENTS & DESIGNS
The Examiner of Patents & Designs is the backbone of the Patent Office who examines the patent application in accordance with section 12 of the Patents Act, 1970, which states as follows:
12. Examination of application.—(1) When a request for examination has been made in respect of an application for a patent in the prescribed manner under sub-section (1) or sub-section (3) of section 11B, the application and specification and other documents related thereto shall be referred at the earliest by the Controller to an examiner for making a report to him in respect of the following matters, namely:—
(a) whether the application and the specification and other documents relating thereto are in accordance with the requirements of this Act and of any rules made thereunder;
(b) whether there is any lawful ground of objection to the grant of the patent under this Act in pursuance of the application;
(c) the result of investigations made under section 13; and
(d) any other matter which may be prescribed.
(2) The examiner to whom the application and the specification and other documents relating thereto are referred under sub-section (1) shall ordinarily make the report to the Controller within such period as may be prescribed. It may be noted that the Examiner of Patents & Designs also acts as Examiner under the Designs Act, 2000.
E. VACANCIES
1. DISTRIBUTION (DISCIPLINE AND CATEGORY-WISE)
Total vacancies and the discipline-wise and category-wise distribution is as follows:
| S No | Discipline | UR |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Bio-Technology | 21 |
| 2 | Bio-Chemistry | 9 |
| 3 | Food Technology | 7 |
F. ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS
1. NATIONALITY
A candidate must be either:-
a) a citizen of India, or
b) a subject of Nepal, or
c) a subject of Bhutan, or
d) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, or
e) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.
Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) shall be a person in whose favour a Certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India on or before the last date of submission of application. Crucial date for claim of SC/ ST/ OBC/ EWS/ PwBD status or any other benefit viz. fee concession, reservation, age-relaxation, etc., where not specified otherwise, will be the last date of filling the online application.
A candidate in whose case a Certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination but the offer of appointment may be given only after the verification of necessary eligibility Certificate issued to him/her by the Government of India.
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2. MINIMUM ESSENTIAL EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION
| S. No |
Discipline | Essential qualification: following Degree from a recognized university |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Bio-Technology | Master Degree in Bio-Technology/ Micro Biology/ Molecular-Biology/ Bio Physics or equivalent |
| 2 | Bio-Chemistry | Master Degree in Biochemistry or equivalent |
| 3 | Food Technology | Bachelor Degree in Food Technology/ Engineering or equivalent |
Note: The candidates must Note : Candidates must hold a degree in any of the above disciplines of any of the Universities incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of the Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University under section 3 of the UGC Act, 1956.
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3. AGE LIMIT AND AGE RELAXATION
a. A candidate must have attained the age of 21 years and must not have attained the age of 35 years as on the last date of submission of online application.
b. The upper age limit of 35 years will be relaxable by up to a maximum of 5 years, that is up to the maximum upper age limit of 40 years, in the case of Government servants in accordance with the instructions or orders issued by the Central Government.
c. The upper age limit prescribed above will be relaxable:
i. upto a maximum of five years if a candidate belongs to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe.
ii. upto a maximum of three years in the case of candidates belonging to Other Backward Classes who are eligible to avail reservation applicable to such candidates.
iii. upto a maximum of three years in the case of Defence Services personnel disabled in operations during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a consequence thereof.
iv. upto a maximum of five years in the case of ex-servicemen including Commissioned Officers and ECOs/SSCOs who have rendered at least five years Military Service as on the date on which online application process concludes and have been released:
a. on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within one year as on the date on which online application process concludes) otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency, or
b. on account of physical disability attributable to Military Service, or
c. on invalidment.
v. upto a maximum of five years in the case of ECOs/SSCOs who have completed an initial period of assignment of five years Military Service as on the date on which online application process concludes and whose assignment has been extended beyond five years and in whose case the Ministry of Defence issues a certificate that they can apply for civil employment and that they will be released on three month notice on selection from the date of receipt of offer of appointment.
vi. Upto a maximum of 10 years in the case of candidates belonging to Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) categories viz.
a. Locomotor disability (OA, OL, OAL, BL) including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attach victims and muscular dystrophy.
b. Blindness and Low vision (VH)
c. Hard of hearing (HH)
d. Multiple disabilities from amongst persons under clauses (a) to (c) except deaf-blindness.
Note I: Candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes and the Other Backward Classes who are also covered under any other clause 3(c) above, viz. those coming under the category of Ex-servicemen or PwBD, will be eligible for grant of cumulative age-relaxation under both the categories.
Note II: The term Ex-servicemen will apply to the persons who are defined as Exservicemen in the Ex-servicemen (Re-employment in Civil Services and Posts) Rules, 1979, as amended from time to time.
Note III: The age concession under clause 3(c)[(iv) and (v)] above will be admissible to Ex- Servicemen, i.e. a person who has served in the rank whether as combatant or non-combatant in the Regular Army, Navy and Air Force of the Indian Union and who either has been retired or relieved or discharged from such service whether at own request or being relieved by the employer after earning pension.
Note IV: Notwithstanding the provision of age relaxation under clause 3(c)(vi) above, candidates of PwBD category will be considered to be eligible for appointment only if they (after such medical examination as the Government or appointing authority, as the case may be, may prescribe) are found to satisfy the requirements of physical and medical standards for the concerned posts to be allocated to the candidates of PwBD category by the Government.
Note V: Same as provided under clause 3(c) above, the age limits prescribed can in no case be relaxed. (Not understood)
(d) The date of birth accepted by the Competent Authority is that entered in the
Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a Certificate
recognized by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract
from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University, which extract must be
certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Higher Secondary or an
equivalent examination Certificate. The certificate in support of date of birth is
required to be submitted by a candidate at the time of online application. No other
document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal
Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted.
Note 1: Candidates should note that only the date of birth as recorded in the
matriculation/secondary examination certificate or an equivalent certificate as on
the date of submission of applications will be accepted by the competent authority
and issued prior to the date of submission of application will be accepted by the
Competent Authority, and no subsequent request for its change will be considered
or granted.
Note 2: Candidates should also note that once a date of birth has been submitted
11
by them in the application form and entered in the records of the competent
authority for the purpose of admission to the examination, no change will be
allowed subsequently (or at any other examination of the competent authority) on
any grounds whatsoever.
G. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION
1. PHASES
The Examination will consist of three phases as follows:
- Preliminary Examination for screening of candidates for the main examination;
- Mains Examination for shortlisting of candidates for Interview; and
- Interview.
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2. DETAILS OF PHASES
The details of different phases are as follows:
(i) Preliminary Examination
- This examination is meant to serve as a screening test and the marks secured in this examination will not be considered towards the declaration of final list of qualified candidates.
- This examination will be conducted in ONLINE mode only.
- It will consist of one paper of objective type multiple choice questions and will comprise of 150 marks .
- This examination will be of a duration of 2 hours.
- A maximum of 150 questions, each question carrying one mark, will be present in this paper, which will consist of multiple-choice questions to test General English (15 marks), Verbal and Non Verbal Reasoning (30 marks), Quantitative Aptitude (30 marks), General Knowledge and Current Affairs (30 marks), General Science (30 marks) and IP legislation in India, WIPO and related treaties (15 marks)
- The number of candidates to be admitted to the mains examination, on the basis of result of the preliminary examination, may be about twenty times of the total approximate number of vacancies to be filled through this recruitment process. The minimum qualifying marks in preliminary exam for UR :30%; OBC/EWS :25% and others :20%
i) For example: A candidate has to score above mentioned percentage of marks category-wise of the total marks in preliminary examination for qualifying in the exam. Further, cut off of the preliminary exam will be prepared as per the vacancy and no. of candidates to be qualified for mains exam. This criterion is tentative and competent authority has the right to do modification as per requirements.
ii) For example: Let’s consider the total vacancy are 100, then no. of candidates qualifying for mains exam shall be approximately 20 times of the vacancy i.e. 2000 candidates and accordingly will be the cut off of preliminary exam.
(ii) Mains Examination
- The mains examination will be conducted in offline mode only and will consist of a written examination, which will consist of 2 papers i.e. Paper –I (OMR Based) and Paper –II (Descriptive answer). Paper I will be of 100 marks and Paper –II will be of 300 marks.
- Paper-I will be of 2 hours duration and will comprise of a maximum of 100 objective type multiple-choice questions, each question carrying one mark, to test the General Knowledge and Current Affairs (20 Marks), General Aptitude (20 Marks), Elementary mathematics (20 Marks), English language proficiency (20 Marks) and knowledge related to intellectual property rights (IPRs) (20 Marks).
- Paper-II will test the knowledge of the candidate in the technical / scientific discipline of the vacancy applied for. Paper-II will be of 3 hours duration and will comprise of 300 marks having descriptive questions. Disciplinewise syllabus is given in Annexure.
- The cumulative marks obtained in Paper-I and Paper-II will be assigned 80% weightage in the final list of qualified candidates.
- As a general rule, candidates must write all the papers in their own handwriting and in no circumstances will they be allowed to take the help of a scribe. However, persons with disabilities may be eligible for the facility of a scribe in accordance with the relevant rules, O.M.s, guidelines, etc. The onus of justifying the existence of such circumstances and the resultant right to use a scribe shall be upon the candidate.
- If a candidate’s handwriting is not easily legible, the relevant answer shall be treated as incorrect.
- The number of candidates to be eligible for interview may be about five times the total approximate number of vacancies to be filled through this recruitment process.
(iii) Interview
The interview will be of 100 marks and will test the candidate on the topics covered in the preliminary and mains examination. The marks obtained in interview will be given 20% weightage in the final list of qualified candidates.
3. MEDIUM OF EXAMINATION
The medium of examination for preliminary and mains examination as well as interview shall be English only
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H. SENIORITY LIST
A common seniority list in various disciplines in respect of the final list of qualified candidates will be prepared by normalization procedure, which will be as follows:
- The highest marks secured by a candidate in each discipline will be considered equal to 100%. The percentages (x) of other candidates in the same discipline will be calculated as per the following formula: (x) = 100 multiplied by marks secured by a candidate in a subject and divided by highest marks in that subject.
- For candidates that have secured equal normalized score, relative seniority be determined by date of birth, whereby a candidate with earlier date of birth (elder candidate) will be placed higher in the list compared to another with a later date of birth (younger candidate).
- In case of candidates with same normalized scores and same date of birth, the candidates may be placed in the seniority list as per alphabetical order (by first name).
Important Instructions to Candidates
- No request for change in examination centre shall be entertained.
- Rights for the rules for the cut off of the all stages for all the posts in the examination are reserved by CGPDTM
- If a candidate fails in such tests, his candidature will not be subsequently considered for any other post/ department. Candidates are therefore required to carefully go through these requirements.
- The final allotment of posts is being made on the basis of merit-cum-preferences and once a post is allotted, no change of posts will be made by the QCI.
- Success in the examination confers no right of appointment unless QCI is satisfied after such enquiry as may be considered necessary that the candidate is suitable in all respects for appointment to the service/ post.
- The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all the eligibility conditions for admission to the examination. Their admission at all stages of the examination will be purely provisional, subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If, on verification, at any time before or after the written examination, it is found that they do not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature for the examination will be cancelled.
- If candidates are found to indulge at any stage in any of the malpractices and fraudery their candidature for this examination will be cancelled and legal actions shall be taken by QCI. QCI may also report the matter to Police/ Investigating Agencies, as deemed fit.
- Before applying, candidates must to go through the instructions given in the notice of examination very carefully.
- Candidates seeking reservation benefits available for SC/ ST/ OBC/ EWS/ PwBD/ ESM must ensure that they are entitled to such reservation as per eligibility prescribed in the Notice.
- The candidates must write their name, date of birth, father’s name and mother’s name strictly as given in the matriculation certificate otherwise their candidature may be cancelled at the time of Document Verification or as and when it comes into the notice of the commission.
- Candidates are advised to fill their correct and active e-mail addresses and mobile number in the online application as correspondence may be made through e-mail/ SMS.
- In case of fake/ fabricated application/ registration by misusing any dignitaries name/ photo, such candidate/ cyber cafe will be held responsible for the same and liable for suitable legal action under cyber/ IT Act.
- All decisions related to recruitment shall be made and enforced by QCI and will be applicable for all candidates.
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Download the syllabus below
Recruitment-Notification_Final-_-30062023-1_watermarked Syllabus
Check the notification
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